An asymptomatic 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1, is evaluated at the clinic during her 10th week of gestation for a routine prenatal visit. Her medical history is unremarkable, and her prior pregnancy ended in an uncomplicated full-term vaginal delivery. The patient reports no pelvic pain, dysuria, vaginal itching, or abnormal discharge. Vital signs are within normal limits. During a speculum examination performed for routine cervical cancer screening, a scant amount of thin, homogeneous, grayish fluid is noted in the vaginal vault. Point-of-care testing of the fluid reveals a pH of 5.0. Microscopic evaluation of a wet mount preparation demonstrates rare leukocytes and multiple squamous epithelial cells studded with coccobacilli that obscure the cell borders. An amine odor is appreciated upon the addition of 10% potassium hydroxide to the sample. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- No further evaluation or treatment is indicatedAnswer
- BAdministration of a 7-day course of oral metronidazole
- CAdministration of a 7-day course of vaginal clindamycin
- DAdministration of single-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone
- EPerformance of a vaginal fluid culture for Gardnerella vaginalis