Match each clinical exposure scenario with its most appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis or targeted management regimen.
- A 19-year-old student who shared a small dormitory room with a peer recently diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis.Single-dose oral ciprofloxacin, multidose oral rifampin, or single-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone.
- A 32-year-old nurse who sustained a deep percutaneous injury with a hollow-bore needle used on a patient with uncontrolled HIV.Three-drug antiretroviral therapy (e.g., tenofovir, emtricitabine, and raltegravir) administered for 28 days.
- A 45-year-old man who woke up to find a live bat flying in his bedroom, though no visible bite marks or scratches are identified.Administration of human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) and a 4-dose series of the rabies vaccine.
- A 27-year-old asymptomatic medical resident with a newly positive interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) and a clear chest radiograph.Oral isoniazid plus rifapentine weekly for 3 months, or daily oral rifampin for 4 months.
Answer
The correct pairings match meningococcal exposure to targeted antibiotic chemoprophylaxis, HIV needlestick to 3-drug antiretroviral therapy, bat exposure to rabies immune globulin and vaccine, and latent tuberculosis to a rifamycin-based or isoniazid-based regimen.
Each clinical exposure mandates a specific, evidence-based prophylactic intervention designed to either eradicate colonization, neutralize viral entry, or prevent the reactivation of a latent infection. The pairings correctly reflect current CDC and professional society guidelines for infectious disease post-exposure management.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Evidence-based post-exposure prophylaxis and management of latent infections