A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a well-woman examination. She feels well and has no current complaints. She experienced menopause at age 51 and denies any hot flashes, vaginal dryness, or postmenopausal bleeding. She takes no medications and has no significant past medical history. Her body mass index is 26 kg/m². Pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia, a well-estrogenized vagina, and a grossly normal cervix without any visible lesions. A routine cervical cytology test is performed. Three days later, the cytology report indicates that the sample is negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy, but it notes the incidental presence of "benign-appearing endometrial cells." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AReassurance and continuation of routine screening
- BTransvaginal ultrasonography
- Endometrial biopsyAnswer
- DColposcopy and endocervical curettage
- ESerum CA-125 measurement