A -year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to the sudden onset of severe substernal chest pressure, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis that began ago. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry is on room air. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure with prominent and descents. Lung auscultation is clear bilaterally with mildly prolonged expiration but no wheezes or crackles. A -lead electrocardiogram demonstrates ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL.
In addition to preparation for emergent percutaneous coronary intervention, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- AIntravenous furosemide
- BSublingual nitroglycerin
- Intravenous normal saline bolusAnswer
- DInhaled albuterol and systemic corticosteroids
- ENoninvasive positive pressure ventilation