A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 28 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery triage for a sudden gush of clear vaginal fluid 18 hours ago, followed by the onset of lower abdominal pain and chills over the past 4 hours. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a uterus that is diffusely tender to palpation. Speculum examination shows pooling of purulent fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix; the fluid turns nitrazine paper blue. Cervical examination reveals 1 cm dilation, 20% effacement, and -3 station. Fetal heart rate monitoring shows a baseline of with moderate variability and no decelerations. Tocodynamometry shows irregular uterine contractions every 8 to 10 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- Administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, and induction of laborAnswer
- BAdministration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, and emergency cesarean delivery
- CAdministration of intravenous ampicillin and azithromycin, corticosteroids, and expectant management
- DAdministration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, magnesium sulfate for tocolysis, and corticosteroids
- EAdministration of intravenous ampicillin and azithromycin, and induction of labor