A 29-year-old primigravida at 41 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor due to postterm pregnancy. She is currently receiving a continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion. Her vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 122/78 mmHg, and heart rate 88/min. Cervical examination reveals 7 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetal vertex is at 0 station. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 minutes and palpate firm. The continuous fetal heart rate monitor shows a baseline of 140/min with minimal variability. There are gradual, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate that reach their nadir after the peak of the uterine contractions and return to baseline after the contractions end. These decelerations occur with more than 50% of the contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusionAnswer
- BPerform a prophylactic amnioinfusion
- CProceed immediately to cesarean delivery
- DAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- EApply a fetal scalp electrode