A 32-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 39 weeks gestation in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her pulse is 86/min and blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg. Pelvic examination reveals the cervix is 7 cm dilated and 90% effaced, with the fetal vertex at 0 station. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed to facilitate internal fetal monitoring, yielding clear amniotic fluid. Thirty minutes later, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of 145/min with moderate variability. However, there are recurrent, abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate to 90/min that last for 30 to 45 seconds before rapidly returning to the baseline. The nadir of these decelerations occurs less than 30 seconds after their onset. The nurse immediately repositions the patient into the left lateral decubitus position and administers a bolus of intravenous normal saline, but the fetal heart rate pattern persists over the next three contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AmnioinfusionAnswer
- BCesarean delivery
- CIntravenous terbutaline
- DFetal scalp stimulation
- EIntravenous oxytocin