A 74-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain that began 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He recently stopped taking his prescribed apixaban. The patient reports nausea and one episode of vomiting. He also complains of mild shortness of breath. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is and irregularly irregular, and respirations are . Pulse oximetry is on room air. Lung auscultation reveals scattered end-expiratory wheezes. The abdomen is soft and non-distended; there is mild, diffuse tenderness to palpation, but no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are decreased. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count:
Lactic acid:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (N: )
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Computed tomography angiography of the abdomenAnswer
- BIntravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- CNasogastric tube decompression and serial abdominal examinations
- DIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and clinical observation
- EMeasurement of free thyroxine and triiodothyronine levels