A 64-year-old man is brought to the neurologist by his wife due to a 3-month history of rapidly progressive cognitive decline and unusual involuntary movements. The wife notes that he initially had trouble concentrating at work and seemed unusually anxious. Over the past month, he has become profoundly disoriented, struggles to walk independently due to poor coordination, and frequently exhibits sudden, brief, shock-like muscle jerks, particularly when startled by a loud noise. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. Neurological examination reveals marked gait ataxia, widespread myoclonus, and severe expressive aphasia. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain demonstrates hyperintensity in the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex on diffusion-weighted imaging. Which of the following best describes the underlying pathophysiology of this patient's condition?
- Conformational change of a normal cellular protein into a -pleated sheet isoformAnswer
- BExtracellular deposition of amyloid- peptides and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles
- CHyperactivity of central serotonergic neurons leading to neuromuscular excitability
- DSevere deficiency of thiamine resulting in mammillary body necrosis
- EProgressive expansion of CAG trinucleotide repeats in an autosomal dominant gene