During morning rounds, the surgical team evaluates a 67-year-old man who is recovering from an elective open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair performed 48 hours ago. The overnight nurse reported a single temperature spike. The patient states he feels generally well, though he has mild pain at the surgical site when coughing. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension. Current vital signs show a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg, heart rate of 94/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at both lung bases and faint end-expiratory wheezes. The abdomen is soft, and the midline laparotomy incision demonstrates healthy granulation without fluctuance, excessive erythema, or purulence. The indwelling urinary catheter was discontinued yesterday, and the patient reports normal, painless urination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continue current care with incentive spirometry and early ambulationAnswer
- BObtain a chest radiograph and send sputum for culture
- CInitiate empiric therapy with intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DPerform bilateral venous duplex ultrasonography of the lower extremities
- EAdminister a dose of intravenous furosemide