A 68-year-old woman is evaluated on the surgical ward on postoperative day 4 following an elective right total knee arthroplasty. She reports new-onset shortness of breath and a mild, nonproductive cough that began this morning. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, and osteoarthritis. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure of 158/92 mmHg, heart rate of 104/min, respiratory rate of 22/min, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. Physical examination reveals prominent jugular venous distention when seated at a 45-degree angle. Pulmonary auscultation demonstrates bilateral crackles at the lung bases. Cardiac examination shows a regular tachycardia with a present S4 gallop, but no murmurs. The right knee surgical dressing is clean, and the incision shows mild erythema without purulent drainage, consistent with normal wound healing. Bilateral lower extremities exhibit 1+ pitting edema. A portable chest radiograph is obtained and demonstrates bilateral perihilar alveolar opacities, prominent pulmonary vasculature, and trace pleural effusions without focal consolidation.
Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select 2 answers)
- Administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- Provide supplemental oxygen therapy via nasal cannulaAnswer
- CInitiate empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister intravenous methylprednisolone and inhaled ipratropium-albuterol
- ERemove surgical staples for bedside wound exploration and culture