An uncomplicated first-time mother, 22 years of age, is evaluated in the labor and delivery ward at term (38 weeks and 5 days). She was admitted earlier today in spontaneous labor. Her membranes ruptured naturally two hours ago with clear fluid noted. Her current vital signs are within normal limits.
Pelvic examination reveals a cervix that is 7 cm dilated and fully effaced, with the fetal vertex at 0 station. An internal intrauterine pressure catheter and a fetal scalp electrode are placed. Contractions are adequate, occurring every 3 minutes and lasting 60 seconds.
Review of the electronic fetal monitoring tracing over the past 30 minutes shows a baseline heart rate of 135/min with moderate beat-to-beat variability. Frequent, sudden drops in the fetal heart rate to 75/min are observed. These drops reach their nadir in less than 30 seconds, last for approximately 45 seconds, and are not consistently synchronized with the onset of uterine contractions.
Nursing staff has already assisted the patient into a left-lateral resting position and administered a 500 mL intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer's, yet the fetal heart rate pattern persists without improvement.
Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate an amnioinfusionAnswer
- BProceed to an emergency cesarean delivery
- CAdminister a dose of subcutaneous terbutaline
- DPerform fetal scalp blood sampling
- EContinue routine monitoring without intervention