A 28-year-old woman presents to an urgent care center with a two-day history of progressive shortness of breath, chest tightness, and a dry cough. Her symptoms began shortly after she adopted a cat. She was diagnosed with asthma in childhood but has not required daily medications for the past five years. Over the last 48 hours, she has used her short-acting albuterol inhaler up to six times daily with minimal relief. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 93% on room air. Physical examination reveals a prolonged expiratory phase with diffuse bilateral wheezing. There is no jugular venous distention, and heart sounds are normal without murmurs or gallops. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?
- Administration of systemic corticosteroidsAnswer
- BAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- CMeasurement of serum B-type natriuretic peptide
- DPrescription of oral levofloxacin
- EAdministration of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam