A -year-old woman is brought to the geriatrics clinic by her husband due to progressive memory loss and confusion over the past months. Her husband states she spends most of her day in bed, has stopped cooking, and has lost kg ( lb). Over the last weeks, she has been repeatedly stating that "the government is coming to arrest me for tax fraud," which is completely unfounded.
Past medical history is significant for Parkinson disease, treated with selegiline, and bipolar I disorder. She previously took lithium but discontinued it a year ago of her own volition.
On mental status examination, she exhibits marked psychomotor retardation and poor eye contact. When asked to perform serial sevens or spell "WORLD" backwards, she gives minimal effort, frequently stating, "I don't know, my mind is completely gone."
Her daughter, who is her legally appointed healthcare proxy, lives in another state. Her husband is frustrated with the patient's decline and demands that the physician immediately authorize her placement in a local nursing home.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ADiagnose schizophrenia and begin treatment with oral risperidone
- BAdd citalopram to her current medication regimen
- Recommend inpatient psychiatric admission for electroconvulsive therapyAnswer
- DPrescribe fluoxetine monotherapy to manage her depressive symptoms
- EObtain consent from her husband for nursing home placement