Seeking evaluation at a community health clinic, a -year-old woman (G2P2) reports a -day history of continuous, dull bilateral lower abdominal pain accompanied by new-onset malodorous vaginal discharge. She states she has been in a new monogamous sexual relationship for the past months. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she uses a copper intrauterine device (IUD) that was placed years ago for contraception. Vital signs show a blood pressure of , a pulse of , and a temperature of (). Speculum examination reveals a normal-appearing cervix with visible IUD strings and thick, yellowish-green mucopurulent discharge at the cervical os. Bimanual examination elicits significant cervical motion tenderness as well as bilateral adnexal tenderness without palpable masses. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound confirms the IUD is appropriately positioned within the endometrial cavity and demonstrates normal-appearing ovaries with no complex fluid collections or tubo-ovarian abscesses. The patient tolerates oral fluids without difficulty. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole; remove the intrauterine device immediately
- Intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole; leave the intrauterine device in placeAnswer
- CIntramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin; leave the intrauterine device in place
- DAdmit to the hospital for intravenous cefotetan and intravenous doxycycline; leave the intrauterine device in place
- EIntramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline; leave the intrauterine device in place