A 24-year-old primigravida at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. Epidural anesthesia is placed for pain management, and an oxytocin infusion is started to augment labor. Two hours later, a cervical examination reveals that the cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and the fetal head is at -1 station. Uterine contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes and palpate as strong. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 140/min with moderate variability. There are recurrent, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of each uterine contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AProceed to emergent cesarean delivery
- BPerform an amnioinfusion
- Discontinue the oxytocin infusionAnswer
- DPerform a vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
- EContinue current management and observe closely