A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic for follow-up of a diarrheal illness. Three days ago, he developed fever, diffuse abdominal cramping, and multiple episodes of watery, non-bloody diarrhea after attending a family picnic. He was seen at an urgent care clinic yesterday where a stool culture was obtained and intravenous fluids were administered. Today, he reports that his fever has resolved and his diarrhea is beginning to improve, though he still has 2 to 3 loose stools per day. He is able to tolerate oral fluids and feels well-hydrated. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg, and pulse is 76/min. The urgent care clinic forwards his stool culture results, which are positive for non-typhoidal *Salmonella enterica*. Susceptibility testing shows the isolate is pan-susceptible. Which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial management?
- AOral ciprofloxacin for 3 days
- BOral azithromycin for 3 days
- COral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 5 days
- No antimicrobial therapy is indicatedAnswer
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone for 1 dose