A 68-year-old woman presents to the clinic reporting a 6-month history of troublesome urinary symptoms. She describes experiencing a sudden, overwhelming need to urinate that is difficult to defer, often resulting in urinary leakage before she can reach the bathroom. She voids approximately 10 times during the day and wakes up 3 times at night to urinate. The patient denies any leakage when coughing, laughing, or lifting heavy objects. She also denies dysuria or hematuria. Over the past two months, she has tried limiting her caffeine intake and following a timed voiding schedule, but her symptoms have not improved. Her medical history is unremarkable. Pelvic examination reveals healthy-appearing vaginal mucosa and no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse. Postvoid residual volume is 30 mL, and a urinalysis is completely normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- Prescription of oral oxybutyninAnswer
- BSurgical placement of a midurethral sling
- CPrescription of oral bethanechol
- DPrescription of oral ciprofloxacin
- EPlacement of a space-filling pessary