An 82-year-old woman who resides in a skilled nursing facility is brought to the clinic for a routine wellness visit. She has a history of mild vascular dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient is at her baseline cognitive function and reports no fever, chills, dysuria, increased urinary urgency, or abdominal pain. Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 138/82 mmHg, and pulse 78/min. The abdomen is non-tender and there is no costovertebral angle tenderness. As part of a general protocol by the nursing facility, a urinalysis and urine culture were obtained prior to the visit. The urinalysis shows moderate leukocyte esterase and positive nitrites. The urine culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Reassurance and clinical observationAnswer
- BOral ciprofloxacin therapy
- COral nitrofurantoin therapy
- DOral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole therapy
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone therapy