An 82-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a skilled nursing facility due to a 2-day history of worsening confusion and agitation. She has a medical history of moderate Alzheimer dementia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and urge urinary incontinence. Two weeks ago, she was evaluated for worsening incontinence, and oral oxybutynin was added to her regimen. She cannot provide a reliable history, but the facility staff reports no observed coughing, vomiting, diarrhea, or signs of pain during urination. The staff did note that her urine has been cloudy and malodorous for the past 3 days.
Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , pulse , and respiratory rate . Oxygen saturation is on room air. The patient is disoriented to time and place and frequently picks at her clothing. The abdomen is soft, non-tender, and without suprapubic distension. Bilateral costovertebral angle percussion elicits no reaction.
Laboratory evaluation shows a leukocyte count of , serum sodium of , serum creatinine of , and blood glucose of . Urinalysis obtained via straight catheterization reveals:
Color: Yellow, cloudy
Specific gravity:
Leukocyte esterase: Positive
Nitrites: Positive
WBCs:
RBCs:
Bacteria: Many
A urine culture is sent to the laboratory. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Withhold antimicrobial therapy and evaluate for alternative etiologies of altered mental statusAnswer
- BDelay antimicrobial therapy until final urine culture and susceptibility results are available
- CInitiate empiric oral ciprofloxacin for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection
- DInitiate empiric intravenous ceftriaxone for a complicated urinary tract infection
- EInitiate empiric oral nitrofurantoin for symptomatic bacteriuria