A 55-year-old man is admitted to the orthopedic floor following an uncomplicated right total knee arthroplasty. On postoperative day 2, he experiences sudden-onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram confirms an acute pulmonary embolism. Subsequent review of the patient's medical record reveals that postoperative chemical venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis was never ordered, despite being standard hospital protocol for this procedure. The orthopedic resident placed the admission orders but was interrupted by a high-priority trauma page and failed to complete the VTE prophylaxis section of the electronic order set. The clinical pharmacist verified the incomplete order set, and the bedside nurse assumed that early ambulation was the only intended prophylactic measure. The hospital's quality improvement committee is tasked with reviewing this adverse event. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action by the committee?
- AIssue formal reprimands to the verifying pharmacist and bedside nurse for failing to notice the omitted medication.
- BMandate that an attending physician must verbally confirm all postoperative orders within two hours of surgery.
- Construct a detailed flow diagram of the admission workflow to identify vulnerabilities in the current process.Answer
- DSuspend the orthopedic resident's order-entry privileges until a mandatory safety training is completed.
- EImmediately institute a mandatory electronic health record hard-stop requiring VTE prophylaxis selection for all admitted patients.