A -year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father due to a -hour history of left eye redness and swelling. The father reports that the child sustained a mosquito bite near his left eyebrow days ago. Yesterday, the area became red, and this morning his eye was swollen shut. The boy has been eating and drinking normally and has had no rhinorrhea or sinus pain. Temperature is (), heart rate is , respiratory rate is , and blood pressure is . On physical examination, the left upper and lower eyelids are severely edematous, warm, and erythematous, preventing the patient from opening the eye spontaneously. With gentle manual retraction of the eyelids, the sclera and conjunctiva appear clear without chemosis. The pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light. Visual acuity is in both eyes. Extraocular movements are fully intact in all directions, and the patient denies pain with eye movement. There is no proptosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdmit for intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone therapy
- BObtain a computed tomography scan of the orbits and sinuses
- Prescribe oral clindamycin and arrange close outpatient follow-upAnswer
- DApply topical erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
- EAdminister intravenous acyclovir
Answer
Therefore, outpatient management with oral antibiotics that cover *Staphylococcus aureus* (including MRSA) and *Streptococcus pyogenes*, such as oral clindamycin, is the most appropriate next step.
| Feature | Preseptal Cellulitis | Orbital Cellulitis |
|---|---|---|
| Infection Site | Anterior to orbital septum | Posterior to orbital septum |
| Eyelid Swelling/Erythema | Present | Present |
| Eye Pain with Movement | Absent | Present |
| Proptosis (Bulging) | Absent | Present |
| Decreased Visual Acuity | Absent | Often Present |
| Management | Outpatient oral antibiotics | Inpatient IV antibiotics surgery |