A 42-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical ward due to severe agitation and confusion. He was admitted two days ago after sustaining a right femur fracture in a motor vehicle collision, for which he underwent an uncomplicated open reduction and internal fixation. His medical history is significant for a 15-year history of heavy daily alcohol consumption, but he has had no access to alcohol since his admission. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . On examination, the patient is profusely diaphoretic and tremulous. He is disoriented to time and place and repeatedly swats at the air, claiming that spiders are crawling down the walls. The surgical incision site is clean, dry, and intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Intravenous lorazepamAnswer
- BIntravenous haloperidol
- CIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DComputed tomography pulmonary angiography
- EOral sertraline