A 28-year-old pregnant woman, G2P1, at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department complaining of severe muscle aches, abdominal cramps, nausea, and diarrhea for the past 24 hours. She has a history of opioid use disorder and admits to using intranasal heroin daily, but reports she ran out yesterday. She also states she has been feeling profoundly sad, having low energy, and sleeping excessively over the past 3 weeks. Her medical records indicate two previous psychiatric hospitalizations for manic episodes characterized by grandiosity and a decreased need for sleep. Vital signs are temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, and respiratory rate 18/min. Physical examination reveals dilated pupils, frequent yawning, rhinorrhea, and piloerection. Fetal heart rate monitoring reveals a baseline of 150/min, moderate variability, positive accelerations, and no decelerations.
The physician counsels the patient on the risks of untreated opioid withdrawal during pregnancy, including preterm labor and fetal demise. The patient demonstrates a clear understanding of these risks but states, "I need to leave right now to take care of my 3-year-old at home. I refuse to be admitted, but I want to get better. I will come to the outpatient clinic tomorrow morning."
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer a dose of sublingual buprenorphine and arrange for outpatient follow-upAnswer
- BInvoluntarily admit the patient to the antepartum unit to protect the fetus
- CPerform an emergency cesarean delivery for impending fetal compromise
- DNotify child protective services immediately regarding her current pregnancy
- EPrescribe oral sertraline to treat her depressive symptoms