An established -year-old patient visits the outpatient clinic requesting a new birth control strategy. Over the last months, she has experienced increasingly heavy menstrual bleeding, often soaking through her clothes and requiring her to take days off work. She previously relied on condoms but desires a highly effective, long-acting method. Her medical background is significant for recurrent right-sided headaches that are preceded by visual bright spots, for which she occasionally takes sumatriptan. She currently consumes one pack of cigarettes per day. Vital signs include a blood pressure of mm Hg, a heart rate of /min, and a body mass index (BMI) of kg/m . General physical and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. A urine human chorionic gonadotropin test is negative.
Laboratory studies reveal:
Hemoglobin: g/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: mIU/L
Prolactin: ng/mL
The patient firmly declines any permanent surgical interventions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- ARecommend a copper-bearing intrauterine device
- BProvide an ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel vaginal ring
- CPerform an outpatient endometrial tissue biopsy
- DAssess serum free testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
- Insert a levonorgestrel-eluting intrauterine systemAnswer