During morning rounds, the surgical team evaluates a -year-old female who reports increasing lower pelvic discomfort and a sense of general malaise. She is currently on her fifth day of recovery following an elective sigmoid resection for complicated diverticular disease. Her recovery had been progressing appropriately; her bowel function returned on the third day, and she was successfully transitioned to a soft diet. However, this morning she felt nauseous and refused breakfast.
Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a well-approximated midline abdominal incision with no surrounding erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. However, there is moderate deep tenderness in the left lower quadrant with mild voluntary guarding. Pulmonary auscultation is clear bilaterally. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of with neutrophils.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrastAnswer
- BBedside removal of surgical staples to explore the superficial fascial layers
- CImmediate transfer to the operating suite for an exploratory laparotomy
- DCommencement of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam with serial abdominal examinations
- ECompression ultrasonography of the deep veins of the legs