A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for worsening respiratory distress. He was admitted 48 hours ago for septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection. During his initial resuscitation, he received 4 liters of intravenous isotonic crystalloids. Blood cultures drawn on admission grew *Escherichia coli* susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. He is currently receiving empirical intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. His medical history includes severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension.
Vital signs are temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure 152/92 mm Hg, pulse 112/min, and respirations 32/min. Pulse oximetry shows 88% on a high-flow nasal cannula ( 60%). Physical examination reveals jugular venous distension to 9 cm . Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia with a prominent S3 gallop. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral basilar crackles. No significant wheezing is appreciated.
Arterial blood gas analysis on current settings shows:
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| pH | 7.22 |
| 42 mm Hg | |
| 60 mm Hg | |
| 17 mEq/L |
Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in management? (Select 2)
- Initiate a trial of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation and administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- Transition current antimicrobial therapy to intravenous ceftriaxoneAnswer
- CAdminister systemic methylprednisolone and scheduled nebulized ipratropium-albuterol
- DMaintain current respiratory interventions as arterial blood gas analysis demonstrates appropriate respiratory compensation
- EContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam to ensure adequate broad-spectrum coverage for a potential secondary hospital-acquired infection