Following a routine well-woman examination, a 52-year-old nulligravid patient is asked to return to the clinic to discuss her cervical cytology results. She transitioned through menopause at age 50 and denies any postmenopausal bleeding, pelvic pressure, or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her current health is excellent with no chronic medical conditions, and she takes no medications. Pelvic examination demonstrates normal external genitalia, a parous-appearing cervix without gross lesions, and a small, mobile uterus without adnexal masses. The cytology report notes the presence of atypical glandular cells (AGC). A concurrent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation?
- Colposcopy, endocervical sampling, and endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BColposcopy and endocervical sampling only
- CTransvaginal ultrasound
- DLoop electrosurgical excision procedure
- ERepeat human papillomavirus testing and Papanicolaou test in 12 months