Question

A 28-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the clinic reporting severe, cyclic lower pelvic pain for the past 4 months. She states the pain lasts for 4 to 5 days each month and is accompanied by breast tenderness and bloating, but she has not had any vaginal bleeding during these episodes. Her last normal menstrual period was 6 months ago. Five months ago, the patient underwent a loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) for high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN 3). She has a negative home pregnancy test. Her BMI is $24 \text{ kg/m}^2$. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia. Speculum examination shows a scarred, flush cervix without a visible external os. Bimanual examination reveals a symmetrically enlarged, globular, and very tender uterus. Bilateral adnexa are normal. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates a distended uterine cavity filled with $45 \text{ mL}$ of echogenic fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?