An obstetrician evaluates a -year-old primiparous female in the outpatient clinic weeks after childbirth. The patient reports a constant, involuntary trickling of fluid from her vagina. Her labor course was complicated by an arrest of descent in the second stage, ultimately requiring a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery of a macrosomic infant weighing (). The patient states her undergarments are persistently wet regardless of her physical activity, position, or whether she is coughing. She explicitly denies pain with urination, a sudden urge to void, or any sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. Vital signs are within normal limits. A speculum examination reveals clear fluid pooling in the posterior vaginal vault, but no discrete lacerations or mucosal defects are immediately visible. Urinalysis shows no leukocyte esterase, nitrites, or abnormal cellular elements. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient's symptoms?
- Retrograde instillation of dye into the bladderAnswer
- BReassurance and pelvic floor muscle training
- CEmpirical treatment with oral nitrofurantoin
- DMeasurement of postvoid residual volume
- EUrodynamic testing