A 26-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward for treatment of a localized methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) cutaneous abscess on her left forearm, which developed after a superficial self-inflicted laceration. She is currently receiving intravenous vancomycin. Her home medications include fluoxetine. Over the past 48 hours, she has been highly demanding, frequently yelling at nurses for 'ignoring' her, while praising the attending physician as her 'savior.' She has a long-standing history of intense, unstable relationships, chronic feelings of emptiness, and frequent, rapid mood shifts from extreme euphoria to deep dysphoria that last for a few hours, typically triggered by interpersonal conflicts. She reports that after a recent breakup, she heard voices telling her she was worthless for 2 days; this resolved without psychiatric intervention. Today, when told the attending physician is off duty, she becomes enraged, states she is being abandoned, and demands to be discharged immediately. She denies active suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Switch vancomycin to intravenous cefazolin, establish strict behavioral limits with a unified medical team approach, and consult psychiatry for dialectical behavior therapy.Answer
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin, increase her fluoxetine dose to address mood lability, and schedule a family meeting to discuss her behavior.
- CSwitch vancomycin to intravenous cefazolin, diagnose schizophreniform disorder based on her history of auditory hallucinations, and initiate risperidone.
- DSwitch vancomycin to intravenous cefazolin, discontinue fluoxetine, and immediately initiate tranylcypromine for her severe mood reactivity.
- ESwitch vancomycin to intravenous cefazolin, attribute her presentation to bipolar depression, and optimize her fluoxetine monotherapy by increasing the dose.