A -year-old woman presents to the gynecology clinic for a follow-up appointment. Ten days ago, she was evaluated for a single, unprovoked episode of vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period occurred years ago. At her initial visit, a transvaginal ultrasound was performed, demonstrating a heterogeneous endometrial stripe with a maximum thickness of mm. An in-office endometrial aspiration biopsy was subsequently obtained. The patient reports no further vaginal bleeding and is otherwise asymptomatic. Her medical history is significant for hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her body mass index is kg/m . Today, the pathology report from the endometrial biopsy is reviewed and states, 'Scant cellular material consisting of superficial squamous cells, blood, and mucus; insufficient endometrial glandular tissue for diagnosis.' Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Hysteroscopy with directed endometrial samplingAnswer
- BReassurance and routine clinical follow-up
- CRepeat transvaginal ultrasonography in months
- DInitiation of continuous oral progestin therapy
- EPapanicolaou test with high-risk human papillomavirus cotesting