An intensive care unit team is conducting morning rounds. The patient is a 68-year-old female who was admitted one week ago following an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. She was successfully resuscitated and placed on mechanical ventilation. Three days ago, her condition became complicated with a new fever of 39.2°C (102.6°F), worsening hypoxemia, and purulent endotracheal secretions. A chest radiograph demonstrated a new right lower lobe consolidation. Empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime were initiated for a presumed ventilator-associated pneumonia.
Today, she exhibits significant clinical improvement. She is afebrile with a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 128/78 mm Hg, and heart rate of 82/min. Her ventilator settings have been successfully weaned. An endotracheal aspirate culture obtained at the onset of fever demonstrates heavy growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Susceptibility testing shows the organism is susceptible to cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem, but resistant to levofloxacin. No other organisms are isolated. A nasal swab polymerase chain reaction (PCR) screen for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) obtained three days ago is negative.
Based on the culture and susceptibility results, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Discontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- BContinue the current regimen of vancomycin and cefepime
- CDiscontinue cefepime and initiate intravenous meropenem
- DAdd intravenous tobramycin to the current regimen
- ESwitch vancomycin to intravenous linezolid