A 41-year-old male accountant is brought to the clinic by his partner due to a 5-week history of feeling 'completely drained.' The patient reports waking up at 3:00 AM daily, having a poor appetite with a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss, and experiencing pervasive feelings of worthlessness. His medical history is notable for a psychiatric admission 7 years ago. During that time, he experienced an 8-day period of sleeping only 2 hours per night, talking rapidly, and spending his life savings on a high-risk investment because he believed he had a telepathic connection with a famous billionaire. He was hospitalized involuntarily for 10 days and discharged on a medication regimen that he discontinued a year later. His only current medication is sumatriptan, which he takes occasionally for migraines. Vital signs and physical examination are within normal limits. Mental status examination reveals psychomotor retardation and a blunted affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Begin treatment with lurasidoneAnswer
- BStart fluoxetine
- CStart venlafaxine
- DDiagnose schizophreniform disorder and start risperidone
- EStart phenelzine