An internal medicine physician is evaluating a 76-year-old male patient who presents with his daughter due to concerns about his worsening memory and unusual behavior over the past 14 months. The daughter reports that his cognitive abilities fluctuate drastically; on some days he is highly conversational and independent, while on other days he stares blankly for hours and requires help with dressing. He frequently reports seeing "small animals" hiding in the corners of his room. His medical history includes hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and Bipolar I disorder. He discontinued his mood stabilizer 5 years ago against medical advice but has remained euthymic since. Current medications include amlodipine, tamsulosin, and carbidopa-levodopa, which was initiated two months ago by a neurologist for a newly developed resting tremor and bradykinesia.
The patient's daughter is his legally appointed healthcare proxy via a verified advance directive. However, his estranged son is also present at the visit and demands that the physician immediately prescribe a strong medication to "stop the crazy visions," explicitly overriding his sister's request for a cautious approach.
On mental status examination, the patient is alert but oriented only to person. He scores on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment, with pronounced deficits in visuospatial function and executive tasks. Physical examination reveals bilateral cogwheel rigidity in the upper extremities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate a cholinesterase inhibitor and discuss the disease trajectory with the daughterAnswer
- BObtain informed consent from the son to initiate a second-generation antipsychotic
- CInitiate haloperidol to rapidly control the visual hallucinations
- DDiagnose late-onset schizophrenia and initiate long-acting risperidone
- EInitiate fluoxetine monotherapy to target a suspected depressive episode