A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 24 weeks gestation comes to the clinic for a routine prenatal visit. She has a history of severe opioid use disorder but had been in remission for two years. During the confidential portion of the interview, she tearfully admits that she relapsed and has been injecting fentanyl for the past two weeks. She explicitly asks the physician not to disclose this information to anyone, stating, "If you tell the authorities, they will take my 4-year-old son away, and I will end up in jail. Please just help me stop." She denies any thoughts of self-harm or harming her son. She reports that her son is currently being cared for by her mother while she seeks help. Fetal ultrasound shows normal interval growth. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AReport the patient to Child Protective Services to ensure the safety of her 4-year-old son
- BNotify local law enforcement regarding the patient's illicit intravenous drug use
- Maintain the patient's confidentiality and urgently refer her to an opioid agonist therapy programAnswer
- DInform the patient's mother about the relapse since she is currently caring for the 4-year-old son
- EInvoluntarily admit the patient to a psychiatric facility to prevent further harm to the fetus