A -year-old nulligravid woman presents to the gynecologist reporting the absence of menses for the past months. Prior to this, she had regular menstrual cycles occurring every days. Over the same -month period, she has noted a significant increase in thick, dark hair on her face, chest, and abdomen, as well as a noticeable deepening of her voice. She has also experienced a receding hairline. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications or supplements. Vital signs are within normal limits. Her BMI is . Physical examination reveals temporal balding, severe hirsutism on the face and trunk, and clitoromegaly. Bimanual pelvic examination is limited by patient discomfort but reveals no obvious adnexal masses. A urine human chorionic gonadotropin test is negative. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?
- ACalculation of the serum luteinizing hormone to follicle-stimulating hormone ratio
- BMeasurement of early morning serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
- CEndometrial biopsy
- Measurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfateAnswer
- EMeasurement of serum free thyroxine