An otherwise healthy 36-year-old female patient presents to the outpatient clinic reporting a 3-week history of spontaneous, unilateral breast discharge. She notes finding small, blood-stained spots on the inside of her bra on the left side. The patient denies any localized breast pain, fever, recent trauma, or palpable lumps. Her menstrual cycles are regular, and she is currently nulliparous. She takes no daily medications and has no family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, visual inspection shows normal breast symmetry without overlying skin changes or nipple retraction. Careful palpation of all quadrants yields no discrete masses, and there is no axillary lymphadenopathy. Gentle pressure applied around the left areola produces a single drop of bloody fluid from a single duct opening. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Intraductal papillomaAnswer
- BFibrocystic changes
- CPituitary microadenoma
- DFat necrosis
- EInflammatory breast carcinoma