A 45-year-old man is admitted to the internal medicine ward for the management of acute pancreatitis. He is a self-employed auditor. Shortly after admission, he becomes highly guarded and refuses his prescribed intravenous analgesics. He states, 'I know that hospitals get kickbacks for addicting patients to opioids. You are trying to prolong my stay to maximize your billing.' He closely inspects his intravenous line, demanding to see the exact manufacturer label on the saline bag, suspecting the staff is tampering with his fluids. He demands to review the medical license of every clinician who enters his room. Despite his intense accusations, his thought process is logical, he is fully oriented, and he denies hearing voices or having visions. He has no history of psychiatric hospitalizations. His sister, who is visiting, reports that he has 'always been like this.' She notes that since his early twenties, he has frequently lost friends because he bears grudges over minor perceived slights and constantly suspects others are trying to exploit him. He is currently estranged from his wife due to his unfounded accusations of her infidelity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Adopt a straightforward, transparent demeanor and provide clear, objective explanations for all medical interventionsAnswer
- BDesignate his sister as a surrogate decision-maker to consent to treatments, as his paranoia impairs his medical capacity
- CInitiate a short course of a second-generation antipsychotic to target symptoms of schizophreniform disorder
- DPrescribe an antidepressant monotherapy to manage his underlying anxiety and hostile affect
- EContact his estranged wife and employer to gather collateral information and ensure a safe discharge plan