A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting a 3-week history of constant, small-volume urine leakage. She states that she never experiences a sudden urge to void, nor does the leakage worsen exclusively with coughing or laughing. However, she frequently feels that her bladder is full and reports a weak, hesitant urinary stream. The patient was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis five years ago and has had two prior exacerbations involving lower extremity weakness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable, non-tender suprapubic mass. Neurologic examination shows symmetrically increased deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities. Urinalysis is negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. A bladder ultrasound demonstrates a post-void residual volume of 450 mL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Intermittent urethral catheterizationAnswer
- BPrescription of oral oxybutynin
- CPlacement of a midurethral sling
- DEmpiric therapy with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- EComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis