An obstetrician is called to evaluate a -year-old primigravida at weeks gestation in the labor and delivery unit due to acute respiratory difficulty. She was admitted four hours ago for preeclampsia with severe features, presenting with a blood pressure of , new-onset visual scotomata, and proteinuria. An intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion was initiated for seizure prophylaxis. Over the last minutes, she has developed significant difficulty swallowing, blurred vision, bilateral ptosis, and profound generalized muscle weakness. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is with shallow efforts. Pulse oximetry is on room air. Physical examination reveals weak neck flexion. Patellar reflexes are bilaterally. Urine output over the last hours has been . Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of with moderate variability and no decelerations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister intravenous calcium gluconate for suspected magnesium toxicity
- BProceed to immediate cesarean delivery for non-reassuring fetal status
- Discontinue magnesium sulfate and evaluate for a neuromuscular junction disorderAnswer
- DReassure the patient as this represents physiologic dyspnea of pregnancy
- EAdminister intravenous furosemide for acute pulmonary edema