A -year-old male is brought to the emergency department due to progressive somnolence and worsening dyspnea over the past hours. His medical history is significant for severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring of home oxygen. Upon arrival, he is obtunded and using accessory muscles of respiration. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , pulse , and respiratory rate . An initial arterial blood gas analysis on ambient air reveals:
| Laboratory Test | Result |
|---|---|
The patient is immediately intubated for hypercapnic respiratory failure and inability to protect his airway. He is placed on volume-assist control mechanical ventilation with a tidal volume of ( of ideal body weight), respiratory rate of , of , and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of .
Forty-five minutes after the initiation of mechanical ventilation, the cardiac monitor displays sustained ventricular tachycardia, and the patient's blood pressure drops to . A repeat arterial blood gas analysis drawn just prior to the arrhythmic event shows a of , of , and of . Serum potassium is currently (baseline upon admission).
Which of the following initial management strategies would most likely have prevented this patient's current hemodynamic collapse?
- Setting an initial respiratory rate of to Answer
- BAdministering intravenous furosemide immediately post-intubation
- CAdministering an intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate prior to intubation
- DInitiating empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics upon arrival
- EIncreasing the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to