A -year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting a single episode of bright red blood on her undergarments two days ago. She has not had a menstrual period in fourteen years. Her medical history is notable for obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and severe genitourinary syndrome of menopause. Three weeks ago, she began using a low-dose estradiol vaginal ring for her genitourinary symptoms. Her body mass index is . Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals a correctly positioned vaginal ring, improved mucosal hydration, and no visible lacerations or active bleeding in the vaginal vault. Ultrasound imaging of the pelvis demonstrates a homogeneously thickened uterine stripe measuring and bilateral normal-appearing adnexa. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Histologic sampling of the uterine lining in the officeAnswer
- BDiscontinuation of the vaginal ring and clinical observation
- CEmpiric trial of cyclic oral progestin therapy
- DOperative hysteroscopy with targeted tissue removal
- ERepeat transvaginal ultrasonography in three months