A healthy 24-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the labor suite at 40 weeks gestation. She is in active labor with an epidural catheter in place for analgesia. Her blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg and her heart rate is 84/min. Pelvic examination reveals a cervix that is 7 cm dilated and fully effaced, with the fetal vertex at -1 station. Thirty minutes ago, an amniotomy was performed to augment labor progression, yielding clear amniotic fluid. Currently, the continuous fetal heart rate monitor displays a baseline of 145/min with moderate variability. The tracing also demonstrates multiple abrupt drops in the fetal heart rate down to 85/min, lasting approximately 45 seconds before returning sharply to baseline. These drops vary in their timing relative to the onset of uterine contractions. The nursing staff has already repositioned the patient to the left lateral decubitus position and administered a bolus of intravenous lactated Ringer solution, but the heart rate pattern remains unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AmnioinfusionAnswer
- BCesarean delivery
- CContinued expectant management
- DIntravenous oxytocin
- ETerbutaline administration