Following a sudden gush of clear vaginal fluid 18 hours ago, a pregnant patient at 38 weeks gestation presents to the maternity ward. She is a nulliparous woman whose prenatal course was uncomplicated. She currently reports mild, irregular lower abdominal cramping. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), blood pressure is 112/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 116/min. The fetal heart tracing shows a baseline of 175/min with moderate variability and an absence of decelerations. Uterine fundal palpation elicits moderate tenderness. A sterile speculum examination confirms pooling of fluid that turns nitrazine paper blue. Subsequent digital examination shows the cervix is 3 cm dilated and 80% effaced, with the fetal vertex at -1 station. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and oxytocin administrationAnswer
- BIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and immediate cesarean delivery
- CIntravenous fluids, acetaminophen, and expectant management of labor
- DAmnioinfusion and continuous fetal heart rate monitoring
- EIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, tocolysis, and betamethasone administration