Routine cervical cancer screening is performed on a 44-year-old patient during her annual health maintenance visit. The patient has a medical history significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of . She reports that her menstrual cycles occur every 28 days and last for 5 days with moderate flow. She has two children delivered vaginally at term. The laboratory reports the cytology results as atypical glandular cells. Speculum examination reveals a parous cervix with no visible lesions. Bimanual examination demonstrates a normal-sized, mobile uterus and no adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Colposcopy, endocervical sampling, and endometrial samplingAnswer
- BColposcopy and targeted ectocervical biopsy only
- CHigh-risk human papillomavirus DNA testing
- DRepeat cervical cytology in 12 months
- ETransvaginal ultrasonography
Answer
Colposcopy, endocervical sampling, and endometrial sampling
The most appropriate next step in management is colposcopy, endocervical sampling, and endometrial sampling. Atypical glandular cells (AGC) on cervical cytology present a high risk of significant underlying pathology, including cervical adenocarcinoma in situ, invasive cervical adenocarcinoma, and endometrial adenocarcinoma. Because of this risk, all women age 35 and older with AGC must undergo a thorough evaluation of both the cervix and the endometrium. Furthermore, this patient's history of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus places her at even higher baseline risk for endometrial neoplasia.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Management of Atypical Glandular Cells (AGC) on cervical cytology
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