A 67-year-old female presents to an outpatient clinic complaining of progressively worsening shortness of breath over the last three days. She has a medical history of essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 45-pack-year smoking history. She reports increased chest tightness and wheezing but notes her daily cough remains productive of only minimal, clear sputum. She denies any fever, chills, orthopnea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Her medications include amlodipine, atorvastatin, and an albuterol inhaler. The temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 154/90 mm Hg, pulse is 95/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Pulse oximetry reveals an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. The jugular venous pressure is estimated at 5 cm H2O. Chest auscultation reveals a prolonged expiratory phase with widespread, high-pitched polyphonic wheezing bilaterally. No crackles or cardiac murmurs are heard. There is trace, chronic non-pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister intravenous furosemide
- BPrescribe oral azithromycin
- Administer oral prednisone and nebulized ipratropium-albuterolAnswer
- DObtain an arterial blood gas to calculate expected respiratory compensation
- EOrder an urgent echocardiogram