A 34-year-old man with treatment-resistant schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by his partner after experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting approximately 2 minutes. He has no prior history of seizures. His psychotic symptoms have been well controlled on a stable regimen of clozapine 400 mg daily for the past 3 years. Four weeks ago, the patient suffered an uncomplicated myocardial infarction and was discharged on aspirin and atorvastatin. At that time, the patient successfully quit smoking cold turkey after previously smoking 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 15 years. He reports no illicit drug or alcohol use. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals a postictal state but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show an absolute neutrophil count of and normal liver function tests. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism responsible for this patient's new-onset seizure?
- Decreased induction of a hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymeAnswer
- BIncreased induction of a hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme
- CCentral nervous system infection secondary to severe neutropenia
- DLowered seizure threshold secondary to nicotine withdrawal
- EDisplacement of the antipsychotic medication from plasma proteins