During bedside rounds on the medical ward, the care team evaluates a 28-year-old woman who is currently on her third day of hospitalization for acute pyelonephritis. At the time of admission, she reported right-sided flank pain, nausea, and subjective fevers, prompting the initiation of empiric intravenous ceftriaxone. Her symptoms have now completely resolved, and she has been tolerating a regular diet since yesterday evening. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg, pulse 78/min, and respirations 14/min. The urine culture collected on admission has finalized, demonstrating CFU/mL of *Escherichia coli*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing indicates that the isolate is resistant to ampicillin and ciprofloxacin, but is susceptible to ceftriaxone, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, nitrofurantoin, and meropenem. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Transition to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleAnswer
- BTransition to oral nitrofurantoin
- CContinue intravenous ceftriaxone to complete a 10-day course
- DTransition to oral ciprofloxacin
- ETransition to intravenous meropenem