A 72-year-old resident of an assisted living facility is brought to the gynecology clinic by her daughter due to the recent discovery of blood-stained undergarments. The daughter noticed the spotting on three separate occasions over the past month. The patient has a medical history of mild Alzheimer dementia and hypertension, and she denies any abdominal or pelvic pain. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the physician notes mild anterior vaginal wall prolapse and a smooth, 1.5-cm red, friable mass protruding through the external cervical os. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed during the visit, demonstrating normal-appearing ovaries and an endometrial thickness of 8 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BCervical polypectomy and observation
- CInitiation of topical vaginal estrogen therapy
- DReassurance and repeat transvaginal ultrasound in 6 months
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis